Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 30.06.2025 02:56
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What is the cause of the common odor many senior citizens have (despite good hygiene)?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
When does a man tell a woman he has feelings for her?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?